Divorce and separation
“Been married a year. Marital home was my home for 11 years prior to marriage and deeds are in my name only. Husband has his own property owned outright. If we were married for a long enough period of time and then divorced, my husband would be entitled to a share of what was my property but I would not be entitled to any share of his. We have no children either from the marriage or previous relationships..”
I think you have assumed that you would not be entitled to anything from the house in his name? That is not correct, after a long enough period of time.
Courts would look at all the facts and try to balance out the finances and they will do that the more, the longer the marriage continued.
You may have heard of prenuptial agreements? They are for before marriage but if you want to protect the house, you can make one now and then it is called a post nuptial agreement. Just let me know if you want some advice from one of our lawyers on this
Visit the main Woolley & Co website For more information on Divorce and Separation.